February 01, 2012 |
I. The fundamentals of international
trade
A. David Ricardo's
trade according to comparative advantage
2. Results
How well does the Ricardian model of comparative advantage apply to the real world?
Much too simplistic
--Ignores resources other than uniform labor => no domestic income distribution effects
--Implies complete specialization
Does have an appealing implication concerning a more
complicated world: rich and poor countries should both be able to find products
that they can profitably export (i.e., products for which they have a
comparative advantage).
Trade competitiveness depends on two things: (1) wages and (2)
productivity
Most of the quotes
overlook the fact that both of these factors play a role
You should tend to export an item if:
your higher productivity more than offsets your higher labor costs or
your lower labor costs more than offset your lower productivity
In general:
product cost = wage / productivity
MC = W / MPL
High productivity
countries have high wages and can still compete, just not in everything
Produce only garments; US wages = 20 x Malawi
Produce only PCs; US wages = 40 x Malawi
Put US wages anywhere between 20 and 40 x Malawi
Example: US
wages = 30 x Malawi wages
|
Annual Salary (W) | PCs | Garments | ||
Productivity | Unit cost | Productivity | Unit cost | ||
United States | $36,000 | 120 | $300 | 600 | $60 |
Malawi | $1,2000 | 3 | $400 | 30 | $40 |
US:
Comparative Advantage in PCs, Malawi: Comparative Advantage in garments
Common error: you can never predict cost advantages
from wage information alone. You need productivity information too.
Empirically, it doesn't do too bad. (Classic study:
G.D.A. MacDougall, 1951. "British and american exports: a study suggested by the
theory of comparative costs," Economic Journal. Results confirmed with later data)
Return to initial
quotes
reflecting popular misconceptions:
Quote 5: "American
factories ... can't compete with cheap foreign labor."
Example: US vs Mexico
(consider just column 2 first) |
||
pre-Nafta (1991) data | Avg. mfg wage | GDP/capita |
US | $15.29 | $22,468 |
Mexico | $2.16 | $3,098 |
US/Mex | 7.1 | 7.2 |
? How can we possibly compete
with such high wages?
But productivity margins vary across goods
For most standardized mfg goods, Mexican workers
in modern factories are just as productive as U.S. workers in modern factories. So we can
expect lots of job switching to occur. That's what's going on in Quote 5--some
factories will close
Quote 2: With NAFTA: "there will be a giant sucking sound
going south."
Was there a giant sucking sound?
Nafta came into effect on 1/1/94
US Dept of Labor provided special trade adjustment assistance (TAA)
for workers displaced by Nafta: Total Nafta/TAA
certifications issued: 525K http://www.doleta.gov/tradeact/nafta_certs.cfm
1994-2003: Average annual number of US... | ||
Nafta-related jobs lost | 52,000 | (1) |
Total jobs lost | 31,300,000 | |
Total jobs gained | 32,800,000 | (2) |
Net change in total US jobs | +1,500,000 | (3) |
Source: Business Employment Dynamics: Total Private Gross Job Losses (http://data.bls.gov/cgi-bin/surveymost?bd) |
What do you notice from this information?
(1) Nafta-related job losses < 0.2% of total jobs
lost
(2) lots of job turnover = churning
(>30 million jobs per
year)
(3) total jobs increased rather than decreased
(1.5M per year
The same reasoning applies to
Quote 6: ""Forcing our middle class to compete with cheap foreign labor will result in systemic job loss ..."
And the same argument works in reverse if we go in the opposite direction:
Quote 7: "No single economic stimulus initiative would do more ... resuscitate U.S. employment ... than a fair "buy American" program."
We'll spend less on imports
But as a result, foreign countries will have fewer $ to buy
American products (and may retaliate as well), so exports will shrink also
The net result: jobs will shift from exports back to
import-competing industries.
The long-run impact of trade policy is to change only the types of jobs, not the aggregate level of employment.
Technology, not trade, is the
main driver behind job turnover:
Manufacturing jobs lost,1995 to 2002: United States: 11%; China 15%,
Brazil 20%, world 11% (Drezner, 2003)
Since lost jobs get replaced, the long-run effect is on job
composition, not total employment
The US is in fact a very successful exporter:
the US = the world's __ exporter of goods and services.
Other top exporters:
US comparative advantage these
days:
agricultural products: wheat, soybeans
high-tech products: aircraft, computers
In general: knowledge-intensive and land-intensive goods
Intellectual property (we earn royalties on our patents)
Makes sense with our abundance of cheap land and well-trained workers
US comparative disadvantage:
Non-agricultural raw materials
Established manufactured goods: steel, autos, textiles
Consumer electronics: TVs, VCRs
In general: low-skill intensive, labor-intensive goods.
Makes sense with foreign abundance of low-wage workers.
Quote 1: "Some countries are so poor that they don't have a comparative advantage in anything."
GDP per capita (2011) |
2010 X/GDP | ||
Rank (out of 225 countries) | Value | ||
US | 11 | $48,100 | 13% |
Malawi | 214 | $900 | 30% |
US per capita GDP > 50 times the level in Malawi.
Wrong to say you probably can't trade if you are poor. More likely that you're probably poor if you can't trade.
Why do some countries have
such low exports?
Ex.: U.S. a large, diversified economy
Consider countries that export less than the US: Export shares
worksheet
Characteristics of countries with low export shares:
1. large and diversified domestic economy
2. in conflict or crisis
3. landlocked
4. trade restrictions
Poorest country in
the world: Democratic Republic of the Congo
Export share:
34% in 2005; 15% in 2010 -- again due to conflict
Low trade is not due to lack of comparative
advantage or poverty
Due instead to ease of self sufficiency, or natural or political trade
barriers
How can some countries export more than they produce?
(Quote 5) "American factories...can't compete with cheap foreign labor."
(Quote 1) "Some countries are so poor that they don't have a
comparative advantage in anything."
Irony: the same people say both, but they are
contradictory:
The 1st => rich can't compete. The 2nd => poor can't compete either
You can figure out comparative advantage without knowing anything about a country's wealth, wages or productivity.
Example:
|
Prices | Opportunity cost of ... | ||
Wine | Beer | Wine | Beer | |
Alemania | 8 Marks | 2 Marks | 4 Beers | 1/4 Wine |
Vinland | 12 Francs | 4 Francs | 3 Beers | 1/3 Wine |
Even though all you know are prices in domestic currencies, you can figure out that Alemania has a CA in beer and Vinland has a CA in wine. No information here about wages or productivity