Sorry,
maybe it's explained later in the text, but I got stuck on the
explanation in part two, where it said that the expected payout on a
roll-down was 50 (instead of 5) for a three-number combination and 1000
(instead of 100) for a four-number and HENCE the expected payout on a $1
ticket became positive. But with the odds of 1-to-54 and 1-to-1,500
correspondingly the expected return is still negative. Am I missing
something here?